>> Is there a grammatical reason for the variant spellings of the name
>> Diophant-ES, -OS, -US ?
and Gordon Fisher responded:
> I should let Antreas Hatzipolakis answer this one (I know your name now,
OK, Gordon, but as a Greek (not as a scholar!) :-)
> Antreas), but briefly, I take it that the difference between Diophantos
> and Diophantus is one between transliteration of Greek, where 'o' comes
> from an omicron, and the customary Latin form of the name. Both are,
> I think, nominative case, so I guess one can say the difference is
> alphabetical rather than grammatical. I don't recall having ever seen
> Diophantes, which just looks like a wrong spelling to me.
You are right. The name is DIO/FANTOS, with the accent on O
[transliterated: Diophantos]
The DIOPHANTUS is just its latinization.
The transliterated Diophantes is the Greek: DIOFA/NTHS [H = eta;
with the accent on A].
If I remember correctly, it appears in Aristotle (Politics?).
Antreas