My apologies; I did not mean to be offensive. In particular, I have not a
clue about transliteration from the Cyrillic and, I must confess, I did not
pay attention to the origin of the sender. Most likely, in Russian, the
letters "d" and "t" are voiced in similar ways. Since, in this case, they
are both mute in French, your spelling of the name is likely to be as
genuine as the standard one.
Let's look at this as a learning experience.
Again, sorry for having "barked at you"; I must have been marking too many
students' papers of late.
Best regards,
Liliane Beaulieu
----------
> De : Romulo Lins <romlins@igce.unesp.br>
> A : historia-matematica@chasque.apc.org
> Objet : Re: [HM] Jean Favard
> Date : Vend 14 mai 1999 20:24
>
> Thank you for the refs. Also, I would like to apologise for the Russian
> authors or for the translator of the work I mentioned, who spelled it
> 'Favart'. Is it usual for names originally in the Latin alphabet to be
> 'translated' into a Cyrilic form? And in that case, could it be that
> Favard would become something which could be read as Favart when
> 'translated' back to the Latin alphabet?
>
> Romulo
>
> Liliane Beaulieu wrote:
>>
>> To all concerned about JEAN (not Jacques) FavarD (not FavarT) :